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In what circumstances do you believe a Christian may divorce their partner? (tick one or more)
10 comments:
Ok nice web page I did look at the playmobible, and I wish everything could be so easy to read.
I did want to add my comment that the early church fathers and the early church did not believe in remarriage after divorce.
Now the author of the article Instone Brewer claims some new scholarship in this area, but I wonder if this new scholarship could be any more authoritative than the early chuch fathers?, or the new testament for that matter.
Because what would people do who lived in an area that didn't have a book with the exception clause?
Also I believe there is no evidence in the new testament that teaches one can remarry after divorce.
One last comment on porneia. This is my opinion and others have expressed this opinion. Didn't the Phairasees deal a cold blooded insult to Jesus and the parents of Jesus when they told him we were not born of fornication. Why did they choose the word fornication which some believe means an illicit affair in the Jewish betrothel state? The could have chose the word adultery.
I really appreciate the authors articles as I believe this is one of the least discussed topics in the bible.
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Sorry for offtopic
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Your blog keeps getting better and better! Your older articles are not as good as newer ones you have a lot more creativity and originality now keep it up!
One of the best chapters on divorce and remarriage I've ever read was found in the book, "Boerewors to Baklava, Gentile to Jerusalem."
Written by Paul a.k.a the barefoot heretic........brilliant
www.thebarefootheretic.com
Some have argued that there is a real difference between someone that has been "put away" and someone that has been "divorced."
I'm curious to know if this is something you've already looked at, and if so what conclusions you came to and why.
Walter L. Callison proposes in his book, Divorce, the Law, and Jesus:
That ἀπολύω (apoluó, G630, put away) paralells שָׁלַח (shalach, H7971, to send away) as seen in Malachi 2:16 and NOT כְּרִיתוּת (kerithuth, H3748, a cutting of the marriage bond) as seen in Jeremiah 3:8. (Please forgive me if my Greek or Hebrew aren't what they should be) The first, maintaining a legal marital bond but failing to afford the spouse any of her marital benefits. The second, granting a legal dissolvement of the marriage by way of a divorce certificate, which afforded her the legal power to marry again.
The paper, he argues, makes a difference.
Do you believe a real difference between the two (i.e. "put away" and "divorced") may be proven?
The important possibility being of course, that in the Gospel passages dealing with a woman "put away," and someone new marrying her (Mat. 5:32; 19:9; Mark 10:11-12; Luke 16:18), the woman would still be legally married (i.e. without a divorce certificate), thus OBVIOUSLY making her an adulteress for marrying anyone new, while still being legally married to her husband, and likewise the man that marries her, as he would be committing adultery with her against her husband.
You are right that some people see a difference in this terminology.
In my study of how these Greek terms were used in actual legal documents of the time, I found that they were synonymous (see here.
The OT commanded that ANY woman you divorce should be given a divorce certificate (Deut.24.1). ALthough there may have been some women who were sent away without one (like the modern day agunot), no law-abiding Jew would do this.
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